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Old 10th July 2008, 17:30   #24 (permalink)
redevil2
Not a bloke..
 
Join Date: Sep 2002
Location: London
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Maestro Minded View Post
Sorry, but I still have to disagree. Like I said, an action on an English law can only be applied to:
  • an English citizen (outside or inside English land/water)
  • a non English citizen inside English land/water
  • a non English citizen (outside English land/water) that in any way has attacked England (off course in accordance to agreements between England and the attackers country)

I might be wrong, but I’m pretty confident I’m not.

But off course, if that law also exists in Switzerland, that’s another issue. However it will be up to Swiss law to take action.
Sorry to break the news: but You Are Wrong! (on all fronts!!)

Further, as a general rule, an act done in a foreign country is a tort and actionable as such in England, only if it is BOTH:
1. Actionable as a tort according to English Law, is an act which if done in England would be a tort, AND
2. actionable according to the law of the foreign country where it was done

Of course it is more complicated and you won't be able to understand UNLESS you have legal training! There is also an element of Conflicts of Laws etc. I am not prepared to argue with you any more as it is meaningless unless you wish to borrow my brain and learn. But of course I don't claim to be experts in Conflicts of Law or have knowledge of laws in the Civil Jurisdiction in Europe.

I hope we are clear!
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