"Loan with an obligation to buy"

duffer

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This is just a FFP dodge, right?

What's the difference between a loan with an obligation to buy and a sale with a delayed payment?

I'm not talking about deals where the players has to meet certain criteria which triggers the sale.
 

SilentWitness

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You can see if they're crap or not e.g Sidibe.

Edit: I that read wrong.
 

SilentWitness

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If it's an obligation to buy then it doesn't matter if they're crap, you still have to buy them at the end of the loan.
Ah woops, early morning and I read it as option.
 

SilentWitness

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If there is an obligation to buy, what difference would it make?
I misread it as option!

Perhaps it's to do with salary though? If you take them on immediately you have to pay their full salary at that stage too, whereas the loan can subsidise some of that.
 

2 man midfield

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Because then people can speculate for 12 months about whether or not it's true.

Remember when people thought we were lumbered with Falcao permanently?
 

LawCharltonBest

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Do we have an obligation or option to buy Ighalo?

I like him, but i think by the end of January we will have got as much out of him as we can.
 

UpWithRivers

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Its definitely an FFP dodge but what the difference between that and a sale with deferred payment I have no idea. Must be something in the FFP regulations that makes a purchase still count even if payment is deferred or something
 

limerickcitykid

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Its definitely an FFP dodge but what the difference between that and a sale with deferred payment I have no idea. Must be something in the FFP regulations that makes a purchase still count even if payment is deferred or something
FFP just goes by accounting standards. Deferring payment doesn’t change the date the expense was incurred.
 

Skills

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Something to do with bonuses I guess. Usually players have loyalty bonuses which trigger after X number of years of being at a club.
 

harms

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This is just a FFP dodge, right?

What's the difference between a loan with an obligation to buy and a sale with a delayed payment?
Yep. It gives the buying club an option to better structuralize the deal in order to fit into the FFP regulations, since transfer fees actually look a bit different from an accounting perspective (read up on the use of amortization in football if you're interested).
 

xonyo

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Contract length as well, a player could be tied down for a two year loan and then subsequently a five year contract.
 

roonster09

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This is just a FFP dodge, right?

What's the difference between a loan with an obligation to buy and a sale with a delayed payment?

I'm not talking about deals where the players has to meet certain criteria which triggers the sale.
No, it's not for dodging FFP.

Obligation to buy is considered same as permanent transfer if i'm not wrong. Read it long time back. Maybe it's because clubs dont have money to pay at that time, so it gives them some time to pay.
 
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This is just a FFP dodge, right?

What's the difference between a loan with an obligation to buy and a sale with a delayed payment?

I'm not talking about deals where the players has to meet certain criteria which triggers the sale.
If you use Mbappe as the example, then 100% yes.

Sometimes I’m sure it’s just a way of managing cash flow, and if it’s a last minute then perhaps it’s also a way of registering the player quickly, and enabling some of the other detail to be fleshed out over time.
 

roonster09

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Yep. It gives the buying club an option to better structuralize the deal in order to fit into the FFP regulations, since transfer fees actually look a bit different from an accounting perspective (read up on the use of amortization in football if you're interested).
This is just a FFP dodge, right?
Uefa has since clarified FFP rules to state that loan deals with “conditional obligation to buy [that is] virtually certain . . . must be recognised by both clubs as a permanent transfer from the inception of the loan agreement”.

https://www.ft.com/content/9bd82b30-caf2-11e9-a1f4-3669401ba76f

Obligation to buy will be considered as permanent transfer.
 

duffer

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No, it's not for dodging FFP.

Obligation to buy is considered same as permanent transfer if i'm not wrong. Read it long time back. Maybe it's because clubs dont have money to pay at that time, so it gives them some time to pay.
If that's the case (that they cant afford to pay and this gives them time), why is it not just a sale with a deferred payment?
 

harms

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Uefa has since clarified FFP rules to state that loan deals with “conditional obligation to buy [that is] virtually certain . . . must be recognised by both clubs as a permanent transfer from the inception of the loan agreement”.

https://www.ft.com/content/9bd82b30-caf2-11e9-a1f4-3669401ba76f

Obligation to buy will be considered as permanent transfer.
Well, will be ≠ is, isn't it? It doesn't surprise me one bit that they are planning to put a stop to it, it was way too obvious. I don't have a FT subscription, so the article is behind a paywall for me.
 

roonster09

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If that's the case (that they cant afford to pay and this gives them time), why is it not just a sale with a deferred payment?
From UEFA site.
Loan of a player from the lender club to the new club with an unconditional obligation to buy
a) The loan must be reflected by the lender club as a permanent transfer and the player’s registration rights must be derecognised from its intangible assets. The proceeds from the loan and from the future permanent transfer must be recognised from the inception of the loan agreement.
b) The direct costs of the loan and the future permanent transfer for the new club must be recognised by the new club in accordance with the accounting requirements for permanent acquisition of a player’s registration

Loan of a player from the lender club to the new club with a conditional obligation to buy
a) If a condition is considered to be virtually certain, then the player’s registration must be recognised by both clubs as a permanent transfer from the inception of the loan agreement.
b) If the fulfilment of a condition cannot be assessed with sufficient certainty to trigger the permanent transfer from the inception of the loan, then the player’s registration must be recognised first a
https://www.uefa.com/MultimediaFiles/Download/Tech/uefaorg/General/02/56/20/15/2562015_DOWNLOAD.pdf

I don't know why it's not a sale with deferred payment, but loan with obligation to buy is as good as permanent transfer for FFP accounting.
 

roonster09

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Well, will be ≠ is, isn't it? It doesn't surprise me one bit that they are planning to put a stop to it, it was way too obvious. I don't have a FT subscription, so the article is behind a paywall for me.
I didn't word it correctly maybe. As per UEFA rules, it is considered as permanent transfer.

From UEFA site.
Loan of a player from the lender club to the new club with an unconditional obligation to buy
a) The loan must be reflected by the lender club as a permanent transfer and the player’s registration rights must be derecognised from its intangible assets. The proceeds from the loan and from the future permanent transfer must be recognised from the inception of the loan agreement.
b) The direct costs of the loan and the future permanent transfer for the new club must be recognised by the new club in accordance with the accounting requirements for permanent acquisition of a player’s registration

Loan of a player from the lender club to the new club with a conditional obligation to buy
a) If a condition is considered to be virtually certain, then the player’s registration must be recognised by both clubs as a permanent transfer from the inception of the loan agreement.
b) If the fulfilment of a condition cannot be assessed with sufficient certainty to trigger the permanent transfer from the inception of the loan, then the player’s registration must be recognised first a
https://www.uefa.com/MultimediaFiles/Download/Tech/uefaorg/General/02/56/20/15/2562015_DOWNLOAD.pdf
 

duffer

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Zehner

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This is just a FFP dodge, right?

What's the difference between a loan with an obligation to buy and a sale with a delayed payment?

I'm not talking about deals where the players has to meet certain criteria which triggers the sale.
An uneducated guess, ingoring salary:

Scenario A (immediate buy with 5 year contract): You buy the player for 100m and give him a 5 year contract. What happens is you lose 100m of cash and activate him as a intangible asset worth 100m. So at the beginning, you don't lose a penny accounting-wise, you're just changing liquid (cash) to non-liquid (intangible asset). Next you have to depreciate 100/5=20m per year. So in year 0, you have 0 costs. In year 1 20m, in year 2 20m and so forth. This also stretches your balance and may make you more likely to get loan deals from banks etc.

Scenario B (one year loan with obligation to buy, 4 year contract): In year 0, you pay no fee and thus activate no intangible asset. In year 1, you buy and activate him as an intangible asset worth 100m. Then you depreciate him over the run time for 100/4=25m per year.

So your costs look like this:

0 25m 25m 25m 25m

instead of

20m 20m 20m 20m

but you also stretch your balance one year later.
 

led_scholes

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I have a question regarding this: can a player deny the move if he has had an awful time during the loan period??