What I don't understand is that if he did not rape her and claims he still did have an agreement with her that was published in a distorted form by Der Spiegel, what was the need for a clandestine agreement in the first place anyway if it was consensual? Doesn't an agreement or an out-of-court settlement imply some mischief by one party, for which the other party agrees a compensation to bury the incident?
Btw, the woman looks a lot like Tara Reid. Sorry if that is the least important of all issues here, but I couldn't help noticing.